Hello all,
I'm new here, and I have an important question about clipping:
Does clipping change the dynamic range irreversibly? Clipping means, that the value for the amplitude of a frame/sample is out-of-range (16 bit), and takes automaticly the maximum value, right? But in that moment the original amplitude-value is lost, isn't it?
A practical example:
File 1 = original source, non-clipping
File 2 = bad encoded file 1, clipping
File 3 = volume-changed file 2 (e.g. with MP3Gain to Max Noclip Gain), non-clipping
Question: is the dynamic range of file 3 the same as at file 1? Differentiate the case (a) when all 3 files are .wav, and the case (b) when file 1 is .wav and file 2,3 are .mp3. I mean, has .mp3 a "physical" limit for the amplitude, or does it store also amplitude-values that would be clipped at .wav?
A second question:
Does clipping also exist for too quiet passages? If the amplitude-value for a frame/sample is lower then the minimal integer and round to 0 = silence...? Is such a case possible, and more important, is it reversibly (with no change in dynamic range)?
General: I mean, you have always a range for the amplitude. But is this range within another, greater range, whose presence allows lossles-clipping-recovery? What when this other, greater range is depassed? Is clipping always reversibly or have we to differentiate "light" clipping (out of the first range) and "extreme" clipping (out of all ranges)?
Thanks! (Nice forum btw)